Postby Rod-Thornton » Sun Jan 08, 2006 7:01 am
This is a very interesting discussion point, although not really such a novel idea. To the point... Jarrod Diamond (PhD) explored a similar question in his Pulitzer prize winning book, "Guns, Germs, & Steel - The Fates of Human Societies" whereby he asks the basic question of "WHY did some cultures, existing in isolation on separate continents, all of which were colonized about the same time (roughly 13,000 years ago for modern man) develop such disparate societies resulting in one culture making steel weapons and technology, when others failed to, leaving them in essentially stone-aged societies? Especially when culturally, they ALL were of equivalent intelligence?
It is a good book and would be pointless to sum up in one short web-post, BUT the questions end up with the very clashes that you cite....say, a metallurgy-aware society clashing against the stone-aged one, such as Cortez and the Indians...both who had vast empires, agricultural societies (forget the hunter-gather myth), governments, irrigation, writing, etc. While the questions are very much like these what-if's , the reasons why they were "had-to-be's" are very interesting and re-affirm to me at least, one reason to study WMA -as those ultimately always triumphed due to the specific circumstances of that cultural progression of all things, including martial, that made the western European development the ultimate world shaper it was...
... (In case you haven't guessed, my money's on the viking, the frank, etc. )
Rod W. Thornton, Scholar Adept (Longsword)
ARMA-Virginia Beach Study Group