Much has been made by many historians about how the rapier defeated the sword-and-buckler and became the weapon of choice in the later Renaissance.
(Of course, the rapier would be worthless on a battlefield with plate armor.)
They cite the rapier's length and its nimble and deceptive point, saying it was easily able to outmaneuver the Sword-and-Buckler, thrust around its defenses, and win. From what they say, it sounds like (in a civilian context) the rapier defeats sword-and-buckler as easily as paper defeats rock. (Basically, this is what Egerton and Castle say.)
Yet we know there was at least a generation there (latter half of the 16th Century) where the Rapier and Sword-and-Buckler were used side-by-side. We also know that George Silver at the turn of the 17th Century still held the Sword-and-Buckler up as the preferred fencing style. Finally, we know it was still in use in Jamestown in the early 17th Century.
Which leads me to my primary question: what caused the fall of the sword-and-buckler and the rise of the rapier?
Was the rapier simply superior for unarmored single combat?
Was it merely a matter of fashion - the Rapier being the elegant fashion of the day?
Was it the rise of reliable firearms, making a pistol a much better off-hand weapon than a buckler?
Was it something else?
Here is my second question:
If the Sword-and-Buckler really could compete with the Rapier, what would be effective tactics to use?
Near as I can tell, the Sword-and-Buckler's main disadvantage relative to other weapons is its short reach (shorter reach than the longsword, sidesword, rapier, or any polearm).


